Q57: One of the prophecies is clearly Messianic in the original context, one is possibly so, and the other two are not obviously Messianic at all. What does this say about the Evangelist's interpretive rule?
That Matthew was indifferent to then-current scholarly opinion as to which passages were or were not messianic, consulting only the Spirit to determine such questions.
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That Matthew was indifferent to then-current scholarly opinion as to which passages were or were not messianic, consulting only the Spirit to determine such questions.
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